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Top 25 FAA Private Pilot Written Test Questions (with Sourced Answers)

LAST UPDATED: 7 OCTOBER 2026

Published Oct 2026~15 min readFAA ACSPrivate Pilot (PAR)

The FAA Private Pilot Airplane knowledge test (test code PAR) is 60 multiple-choice questions in 2 hours 30 minutes, with a pass mark of 70%. It covers the areas of the Private Pilot ACS: regulations and medicals, airspace and VFR weather minimums, weather and weather services, aerodynamics and performance, aircraft systems, human factors, navigation and airport operations. These 25 questions take the points that come up most often across those areas.

Each question comes from v1prep's FAA Private Pilot bank, with its options, the correct answer marked, a short explanation and its source: the ACS area, the 14 CFR section, the PHAK chapter or the AIM paragraph. The real test gives three options per question; the bank gives four. Choose your answer before you read the one under it. For the format, cost and endorsement, see the FAA private pilot written test guide.

Sections: 5 questions each
  1. Regulations
  2. Airspace
  3. Weather & weather services
  4. Aerodynamics, performance & systems
  5. Human factors, navigation & the airport

Regulations

Medical, flight review, currency, fuel, right-of-way
Question 1
A pilot who turned 42 last year was issued a third-class medical certificate on June 5, 2025. For private pilot privileges, on what date does that medical certificate expire?
  1. AJune 5, 2027
  2. BJune 30, 2030
  3. CJune 30, 2027 ✓
  4. DJune 5, 2030
Answer: C. Under 14 CFR 61.23(d), a third-class medical issued to a pilot who was 40 or older at the examination is valid for private pilot privileges to the last day of the 24th month after the month of issue: June 30, 2027. Had the pilot been under 40, it would have run 60 calendar months, to June 30, 2030.Source: ACS PA.I.A · 14 CFR 61.23
Question 2
A private pilot last completed a flight review on August 14, 2024, and has not earned a new certificate or rating since. Under 14 CFR 61.56, what is the last day the pilot may act as pilot in command?
  1. AAugust 31, 2026 ✓
  2. BAugust 14, 2026
  3. CAugust 31, 2025
  4. DAugust 14, 2025
Answer: A. 61.56(c) requires a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months, so a review in August 2024 covers the pilot to the last day of August 2026. The review is at least 1 hour of ground training and 1 hour of flight training with an authorised instructor.Source: ACS PA.I.A · 14 CFR 61.56
Question 3
A private pilot wants to carry passengers in a Cessna 182 on a flight departing 90 minutes after sunset. Which recent experience does 14 CFR 61.57(b) require?
  1. AThree takeoffs and landings, touch-and-go permitted, within the preceding 90 days in any airplane at night, regardless of category or class
  2. BThree takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 12 calendar months in a single-engine airplane at night, per the pilot's logbook endorsement
  3. CThree takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in a single-engine airplane, made between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise ✓
  4. DThree takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in a single-engine airplane at any time of day, plus a night endorsement
Answer: C. The flight departs more than 1 hour after sunset, so 61.57(b) applies: three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days, in the same category and class, made between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise. Touch-and-goes count for day currency but not for night.Source: ACS PA.I.A · 14 CFR 61.57
Question 4
A private pilot plans a night VFR flight with 2 hours 0 minutes en route to the first point of intended landing. The airplane burns 9 gallons per hour at normal cruise. What minimum fuel does 14 CFR 91.151 require at takeoff?
  1. A24.75 gallons ✓
  2. B22.5 gallons
  3. C18 gallons
  4. D27 gallons
Answer: A. 91.151(a) requires fuel to the first point of intended landing and then, at normal cruising speed, for 30 minutes by day or 45 minutes at night: 2.0 h + 0.75 h = 2.75 h × 9 gph = 24.75 gallons. These are legal minimums.Source: ACS PA.I.D · 14 CFR 91.151
Question 5
A private pilot in a Cessna 172 sees a glider converging from the left at the same altitude. Under 14 CFR 91.113, which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why?
  1. AThe glider, because when aircraft of different categories converge, a glider has the right-of-way over an airplane ✓
  2. BThe airplane, because in a converging situation the aircraft on the other's right has the right-of-way under 14 CFR 91.113(g)
  3. CThe airplane, because a glider is unpowered and must give way to all engine-driven aircraft
  4. DNeither; both must alter course to the right as in a head-on encounter
Answer: A. When aircraft of different categories converge, 91.113(d) gives a balloon the right-of-way over all others, and a glider over airships, airplanes and rotorcraft. The aircraft-on-the-right rule applies only when both are of the same category.Source: ACS PA.III.B · 14 CFR 91.113(d)

Airspace

Classes A to E and Special VFR
Question 6
What are the vertical limits of Class A airspace over the contiguous United States?
  1. AFrom 18,000 ft AGL up to and including FL600
  2. BFrom 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600 ✓
  3. CFrom 14,500 ft MSL up to but not including FL600
  4. DFrom FL180 up to and including FL450
Answer: B. Class A runs from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600. Its dimensions are the same everywhere, so it is not shown on sectional charts. 14,500 ft MSL is the default floor of Class E, not Class A.Source: ACS PA.I.E · PHAK Ch. 15 · 14 CFR 71.33
Question 7
What are the basic VFR weather minimums for operating within Class B airspace?
  1. A3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds ✓
  2. B3 statute miles visibility and 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds
  3. C1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
  4. D5 statute miles visibility and 1,000 ft above and below clouds
Answer: A. In Class B, 91.155 requires 3 SM flight visibility and clear of clouds, because ATC separates all aircraft, IFR and VFR. The 500/1,000/2,000 ft cloud distances are the rule in Classes C, D and E below 10,000 ft MSL.Source: ACS PA.I.E · PHAK Ch. 15 · 14 CFR 91.155
Question 8
A pilot 12 NM from a Class C primary airport calls: "Approach, Cessna 4AB, 12 miles south, 2,500, landing." Which reply establishes two-way communication so that the pilot may enter the Class C airspace?
  1. A"Aircraft calling, standby"
  2. B"Cessna 4AB, remain outside"
  3. C"Station calling, say again"
  4. D"Cessna 4AB, standby" ✓
Answer: D. 91.130 requires two-way radio communication with ATC before entering Class C. If the controller answers with your call sign, even with only "standby", communication is established and you may enter (AIM 3-2-4). A reply without the call sign does not establish it, and "remain outside" must always be obeyed.Source: ACS PA.I.E · AIM 3-2-4 · 14 CFR 91.130
Question 9
A private pilot cruises VFR at 6,500 ft MSL in Class E airspace. Under 14 CFR 91.155, what are the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds?
  1. A1 statute mile, clear of clouds
  2. B5 statute miles; 1,000 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 1 statute mile horizontal
  3. C3 statute miles; 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal ✓
  4. D3 statute miles; 1,000 ft below, 500 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal
Answer: C. In Class E below 10,000 ft MSL, 91.155(a) requires 3 SM flight visibility and 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above and 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds, the same as Classes C and D. At and above 10,000 ft MSL it becomes 5 SM and 1,000 ft, 1,000 ft and 1 SM.Source: ACS PA.I.E · 14 CFR 91.155
Question 10
A private pilot with no instrument rating requests a Special VFR clearance to land at a Class E surface-area airport at 2100 local, after sunset, with 2 SM visibility reported. What is the result?
  1. AATC will issue the clearance if the airplane has an operating transponder and position lights
  2. BATC will issue the clearance because the visibility exceeds the 1 SM Special VFR minimum
  3. CATC cannot issue it, because night Special VFR requires an instrument rating and an IFR-equipped airplane ✓
  4. DATC cannot issue Special VFR in a Class E surface area at any time; it applies only to Class B, C, and D
Answer: C. 91.157(b)(4) permits Special VFR between sunset and sunrise only if the pilot holds an instrument rating and the airplane is equipped for IFR flight. Special VFR is available in the surface areas of Classes B, C, D and E, so here it is the night restriction that applies.Source: ACS PA.I.E · PHAK Ch. 15 · 14 CFR 91.157

Weather & weather services

Cloud base, storms, icing, METAR, TAF
Question 11
At an airport the temperature is 24 °C and the dew point is 14 °C. Approximately how high above the ground will the bases of convective clouds form?
  1. AAbout 2,300 ft AGL
  2. BAbout 5,000 ft AGL
  3. CAbout 4,000 ft AGL ✓
  4. DAbout 10,000 ft AGL
Answer: C. The temperature and dew point close at about 2.5 °C per 1,000 ft of lift. The spread is 24 − 14 = 10 °C, and 10 ÷ 2.5 = 4, so the bases are near 4,000 ft AGL. Add the field elevation for the base in feet MSL.Source: ACS PA.I.C · PHAK Ch. 12 · FAA-H-8083-28 Aviation Weather Handbook
Question 12
Which three conditions must all be present at the same time for a thunderstorm to develop?
  1. AMoisture, a stable lapse rate, and strong surface winds
  2. BLow pressure, a warm front, and a temperature inversion
  3. CWater vapour, unstable air, and a lifting action ✓
  4. DHigh humidity, a stable lapse rate, and clear skies
Answer: C. Moisture to form the cloud and release latent heat, an unstable lapse rate so that a lifted parcel keeps rising, and a lifting action: surface heating, a front, converging winds or rising terrain. Without any one of the three, the storm cannot develop.Source: ACS PA.I.C · PHAK Ch. 12 · FAA-H-8083-28 Aviation Weather Handbook
Question 13
Which two conditions must exist together for structural ice to form on the airframe?
  1. AOutside air temperature below −10 °C in any type of cloud
  2. BVisible moisture and an airframe surface temperature at or below 0 °C ✓
  3. CPrecipitation of any kind and an outside air temperature below 10 °C
  4. DHigh humidity in clear air with temperatures between −7 °C and 21 °C
Answer: B. Structural icing needs supercooled liquid water, meaning visible moisture such as cloud, freezing rain or drizzle, striking a surface at 0 °C or colder. Cloud made only of ice crystals is not enough. Icing is most likely between 0 °C and −20 °C.Source: ACS PA.I.C · AC 91-74B · PHAK Ch. 12
Question 14
A METAR reports BKN015 OVC030 at an airport with a field elevation of 5,431 ft MSL. What is the reported ceiling?
  1. A3,000 ft AGL, the height of the overcast layer
  2. B1,500 ft AGL, the height of the lowest broken or overcast layer ✓
  3. C1,500 ft MSL, because METAR heights are reported above sea level
  4. D6,931 ft AGL, the sum of field elevation and the broken layer height
Answer: B. A ceiling is the height above ground of the lowest layer reported as broken or overcast, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration. METAR cloud heights are in hundreds of feet AGL, so BKN015 is a 1,500 ft AGL ceiling. Few and scattered layers never form a ceiling.Source: ACS PA.I.C.K2 · FAA-H-8083-28 Aviation Weather Handbook · PHAK Ch. 13
Question 15
The KDFW TAF contains TEMPO 0204/0208 4SM BR BKN012. What does this group mean?
  1. ABetween 0400Z and 0800Z the prevailing forecast conditions themselves become 4 statute miles in mist with a 1,200 foot ceiling overall
  2. BBetween 0400Z and 0800Z on the 2nd, temporary fluctuations to 4 SM in mist and a broken layer at 1,200 ft AGL are expected ✓
  3. CBetween 0204Z and 0208Z, 4 statute miles in mist represents the forecaster's single best estimate of the prevailing conditions expected
  4. DFrom 0400Z to 0800Z there is stated to be a 40 percent probability of 4 statute miles visibility occurring in mist during that period
Answer: B. TEMPO describes temporary fluctuations, each expected to last less than an hour and together less than half of the period given. Outside them, the prevailing conditions of the preceding FM group apply.Source: ACS PA.I.C.K2 · FAA-H-8083-28 Aviation Weather Handbook · PHAK Ch. 13

Aerodynamics, performance & systems

Load factor, Va, density altitude, carb ice, pitot
Question 16
An airplane weighing 2,300 pounds enters a coordinated, constant-altitude 60° bank turn. How much total lift must the wings produce, and what is the load factor?
  1. A2,300 pounds; 1.0 g
  2. B2,650 pounds; 1.15 g
  3. C3,250 pounds; 1.41 g
  4. D4,600 pounds; 2.0 g ✓
Answer: D. In a constant-altitude turn the load factor is 1 ÷ cos(bank angle). Cos 60° = 0.5, so the load factor is 2.0 and the wings must produce 2 × 2,300 = 4,600 pounds of lift. 1.15 g and 1.41 g are the values for 30° and 45° of bank.Source: ACS PA.V.A · PHAK Ch. 5
Question 17
The POH gives a manoeuvring speed (Va) of 105 knots at the maximum gross weight of 2,550 pounds. Flying solo with partial fuel at 2,000 pounds, what manoeuvring speed should the pilot use, and why? Va should be...
  1. Ahigher than 105 knots, because a lighter airplane accelerates more in a gust and needs more speed for control
  2. Blower than 105 knots, because a lighter airplane stalls at a lower speed, so it reaches limit load at a lower airspeed ✓
  3. Cexactly 105 knots, because Va is a fixed structural limit set at certification that does not vary with weight
  4. Dlower than 105 knots, because the lighter airplane has a higher stall speed and so reaches the limit load factor sooner
Answer: B. Va is the speed at which the wing reaches its critical angle of attack at exactly the limit load factor, so the airplane stalls before it is overstressed. A lighter airplane stalls at a lower speed, so Va falls with weight, roughly by the square root of the weight ratio: about 105 × √(2,000/2,550) = 93 knots.Source: ACS PA.V.A · PHAK Ch. 5
Question 18
Which combination of conditions produces the highest density altitude and therefore the poorest takeoff performance?
  1. AHigh field elevation, low temperature, high barometric pressure, and low humidity
  2. BLow field elevation, high temperature, high barometric pressure, and low humidity
  3. CHigh field elevation, high barometric pressure, low temperature, and high humidity
  4. DHigh field elevation, high temperature, low barometric pressure, and high humidity ✓
Answer: D. Density altitude rises with anything that thins the air: higher elevation, higher temperature, lower pressure and more water vapour. "High, hot and humid" can make a 5,000 ft airport perform like 9,000 ft or more.Source: ACS PA.I.F · PHAK Ch. 11
Question 19
Under which set of conditions is carburettor icing most likely to occur in a float-type carburettor?
  1. AOutside air temperature below 0 °F with low relative humidity and visible moisture present
  2. BOutside air temperature above 80 °F with dry air and high power settings
  3. COutside air temperature between about 20 °F and 70 °F with high relative humidity, even in clear air ✓
  4. DOnly when flying through clouds or precipitation with the outside air temperature below freezing
Answer: C. Fuel vaporisation and the pressure drop in the venturi can cool the induction air by as much as 70 °F, so ice forms with the outside air well above freezing: most likely between about 20 °F and 70 °F (about −7 °C to 21 °C) with relative humidity above about 80 percent. It does not need visible moisture.Source: ACS PA.I.G · PHAK Ch. 7
Question 20
During a climb through visible moisture without pitot heat, ice completely blocks both the pitot tube ram inlet and its drain hole while the static ports remain clear. How will the airspeed indicator behave?
  1. AIt will drop to zero and remain there until the ice melts
  2. BIt will freeze at the airspeed indicated when the blockage occurred, regardless of altitude changes
  3. CIt will read progressively lower as the airplane climbs and higher as it descends
  4. DIt will act like an altimeter, reading higher as the airplane climbs and lower as it descends ✓
Answer: D. With both openings blocked, the pressure trapped in the pitot line stays fixed while static pressure falls in a climb, so the indicated airspeed rises in a climb and falls in a descent. If only the ram inlet is blocked and the drain hole is open, the airspeed drops to zero.Source: ACS PA.VIII.A · PHAK Ch. 8

Human factors, navigation & the airport

Alcohol, the leans, cruising altitudes, signs, light gun
Question 21
Under 14 CFR 91.17, no person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within how many hours of consuming alcohol, or with what alcohol concentration?
  1. A8 hours; an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater ✓
  2. B8 hours; an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or greater
  3. C12 hours; an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater
  4. D24 hours; an alcohol concentration of 0.02 or greater
Answer: A. 14 CFR 91.17(a): no acting as a crewmember within 8 hours of any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence, or with an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater. The 0.08 figure is a typical state driving limit and does not apply.Source: ACS PA.I.H · 14 CFR 91.17
Question 22
In IMC you have held a shallow left bank for over a minute without noticing. When you roll the wings level on the instruments, you feel as though you are now banking right. What is this illusion and what should you do?
  1. AThe leans; trust the attitude indicator and keep the wings level ✓
  2. BThe graveyard spiral; add back pressure to stop the descent
  3. CThe Coriolis illusion; move the head slowly to reset the vestibular system
  4. DThe somatogravic illusion; reduce power to remove the acceleration cue
Answer: A. In a slow or prolonged turn the fluid in the semicircular canals stops moving and the turn is no longer felt. Rolling level then feels like a bank the other way, and the pilot may roll back into the original turn. The only reliable defence is to believe the flight instruments.Source: ACS PA.VIII.A · PHAK Ch. 17 · AIM 8-1-5
Question 23
An airplane's magnetic course is 095°. Under 91.159, which cruising altitude is correct above 3,000 feet AGL?
  1. A5,500 feet ✓
  2. B4,500 feet only if westbound
  3. C5,000 feet
  4. D6,500 feet
Answer: A. 91.159 uses magnetic course: 0° to 179° calls for odd thousands plus 500 ft (3,500, 5,500, 7,500), 180° to 359° for even thousands plus 500 ft. A course of 095° is eastbound, so 5,500 ft. The rule applies above 3,000 ft AGL.Source: ACS PA.I.D · 14 CFR 91.159
Question 24
While taxiing you reach a sign with white characters '4-22' on a red background beside the taxiway. What does this sign indicate?
  1. AYou are on runway 4-22 and should exit at the next taxiway
  2. BA holding position for runway 4-22; stop here before entering or crossing it ✓
  3. CRunway 4-22 lies ahead in the direction shown; taxi straight ahead on this taxiway to reach it
  4. DThe remaining distance on runway 4-22 in thousands of feet
Answer: B. Red signs with white characters are mandatory instruction signs. A runway holding position sign shows the runway designation; at a towered airport you hold there until cleared to enter or cross. Location signs have yellow characters on a black background.Source: ACS PA.II.D · AIM 2-3-8 · PHAK Ch. 14
Question 25
Your radio has failed on final approach to a tower-controlled airport, and the tower directs a steady red light at you. What does it mean?
  1. AAirport unsafe, do not land
  2. BReturn for landing, followed by steady green at the proper time
  3. CGive way to other aircraft and continue circling ✓
  4. DExercise extreme caution
Answer: C. To an aircraft in flight, steady red means give way to other aircraft and continue circling. Flashing red means airport unsafe, do not land; flashing green, return for landing; steady green, cleared to land; alternating red and green, exercise extreme caution.Source: ACS PA.III.A · AIM 4-3-13 · 14 CFR 91.125

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