v1prep / Top 25 ATPL Human Performance Questions
Top 25 ATPL Human Performance Questions (with Sourced Answers)
LAST UPDATED: 7 OCTOBER 2026
Published Oct 2026~14 min readEASA syllabusSubject 040
Human Performance and Limitations (040) is one of the 13 EASA ATPL theory papers: 48 questions in 1 hour 30 minutes, passed at 75%. Half of it is aviation physiology (the atmosphere and hypoxia, decompression, the senses and their illusions, sleep, fatigue and health) and half is psychology (information processing, error, decision making, threat and error management and crew cooperation). It rewards exact figures and exact definitions.
These 25 questions come from v1prep's ATPL Human Factors bank, with the four options, the correct answer marked, a short explanation and the page of the CAE Oxford 040 text it is taken from. Choose your answer before you read the one under it. For the visual and vestibular illusions in more depth, see spatial disorientation and visual illusions.
Altitude physiology
Hypoxia, TUC, decompression, ears
Question 1
The four classified types of hypoxia are:
- AAcute / chronic / sub-acute / latent (these are time-course descriptors, not types)
- BCerebral / pulmonary / cardiac / peripheral (not the recognised classification)
- CMild / moderate / severe / fatal (these are severities, not types)
- DHypoxic / anaemic / stagnant / histotoxic ✓
Answer: D. Hypoxic: a low partial pressure of oxygen, as at altitude. Anaemic: the blood cannot carry enough oxygen, as with anaemia or carbon monoxide. Stagnant: insufficient blood flow. Histotoxic: the cells cannot use the oxygen, as with alcohol or cyanide.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 43
Question 2
TUC at 30 000 ft (for a person at rest) is approximately:
- A30 minutes (this is the value at 20 000 ft)
- B30-90 seconds (this is for 35 000 ft)
- C1-2 minutes (the standard figure for 30 000 ft) ✓
- D15-20 seconds (this is for 40 000 ft)
Answer: C. For a person at rest: about 30 minutes at 20 000 ft, 1 to 2 minutes at 30 000 ft, 30 to 90 seconds at 35 000 ft and 15 to 20 seconds at 40 000 ft. Moderate activity cuts the 20 000 ft figure to about 5 minutes.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 47
Question 3
Distinguishing between hypoxia and hyperventilation in flight: the appropriate response per the 'do not assume hyperventilation if it could be hypoxia' rule is:
- AIf at an altitude where hypoxia is possible, assume hypoxia and carry out hypoxia drills ✓
- BAlways assume hyperventilation: it is more common and the breathing-bag treatment cannot harm
- CWait until symptoms become extreme before taking any action
- DAsk the other crew member to confirm symptoms before initiating any drill
Answer: A. When in doubt, assume the worst. At an altitude where hypoxia is possible, treat the symptoms as hypoxia and carry out the hypoxia drills: unconsciousness from hyperventilation is followed by recovery, unconsciousness from hypoxia by death.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 48
Question 4
Following compressed-air diving, the rules for subsequent flight are:
- ANo restriction: flying after diving is unrelated to DCS at all
- BDo not fly within 12 hours of diving ✓
- CWait 1 hour after surfacing before any flight, regardless of depth
- DWait 7 days after any diving regardless of depth or duration of exposure
Answer: B. Do not fly within 12 hours of diving with compressed air, and avoid flying for 24 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded. Ignoring the rule has caused decompression sickness in flight at altitudes as low as 6 000 ft.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 51
Question 5
Otic (middle-ear) barotrauma occurs predominantly in:
- AClimb only: air cannot escape from the middle ear during ascent
- BEqually in climb and descent (this is sinus barotrauma, not otic)
- CCruise at altitude regardless of pressure changes
- DDescent: the Eustachian tube's flap valve restricts air re-entry ✓
Answer: D. The Eustachian tube acts as a flap valve: air escapes easily from the middle ear in the climb, but its return is restricted in the descent. Sinus barotrauma, by contrast, can be equally painful in the climb or the descent.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 94
Senses & illusions
Vestibular, vision, approach illusions
Question 6
The somatogyral illusion (the leans) results from:
- ALinear acceleration causing the otoliths to move backwards in the utricle
- BPressure changes in the middle ear due to sinus blockage
- CSudden head movement during a steady turn at >3°/sec (this is Coriolis)
- DInability of the semicircular canals to register a prolonged rotation ✓
Answer: D. The semicircular canals cannot register a prolonged rotation accurately. Once a turn has been held for a while it is no longer felt, and levelling the wings is then felt as a turn in the opposite direction.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 66
Question 7
On take-off acceleration, the somatogravic illusion produced by the otoliths gives the pilot:
- AAn impression of pitching down, encouraging pull-back on the stick
- BNo false impression: otoliths only react to angular accelerations
- CAn impression of rolling left, encouraging right-aileron correction
- DAn impression of pitching up, encouraging push-forward on the stick ✓
Answer: D. Linear acceleration moves the otoliths backwards, which the brain reads as the nose pitching up. The pilot is tempted to push forward, towards the ground. The same illusion occurs on a go-around.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 187
Question 8
Light and dark adaptation times for the eye are approximately:
- ALight adaptation: 30 minutes; dark adaptation: 10 seconds (reversed)
- BBoth light and dark adaptation occur instantaneously
- CLight adaptation: ~10 seconds; dark adaptation: up to ~30 minutes ✓
- DBoth take 30 minutes: there is no difference between the two
Answer: C. Light adaptation takes about 10 seconds. Dark adaptation takes about 7 minutes for the cones and about 30 minutes for the rods, so bright lights should be avoided for about 30 minutes before a night flight.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 78
Question 9
The Black Hole Effect (Kraft Illusion) occurs when:
- AApproaching at night over featureless terrain with only runway lights visible ✓
- BLanding in heavy daytime rain with full visibility of approach lights
- CApproaching during the day over textured countryside with normal visual cues
- DLanding with a fully serviceable ILS in any weather condition
Answer: A. At night over water, jungle or desert, with only the distant runway lights visible, the lack of visual cues gives an illusion of being too high. The approach is flown too shallow and the aircraft touches down short.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 191
Question 10
Recommended scanning technique for collision avoidance:
- AOne smooth sweep covering 180° in less than half a second
- BMovements of ≤10° each, dwelling ≥2 seconds, overlapping sectors ✓
- CContinuous staring at the centre of the windscreen during cruise
- DStop scanning during cruise: it is not needed in controlled airspace
Answer: B. Move the eyes no more than 10° at a time, look at each area for at least 2 seconds, and cover the sky in overlapping sectors, above and below the aircraft as well. At night, look slightly to one side, because the rods detect movement best.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 195
Sleep, stress & health
Jet lag, arousal, alcohol, incapacitation
Question 11
Travelling eastbound (e.g. New York → London) typically produces:
- ALess jet lag than westbound because the body day naturally extends
- BNo jet lag if the time zone change is less than 9 hours
- CEqual jet lag in either direction: direction does not matter
- DMore jet lag than westbound (the day shortens to ~19 hours) ✓
Answer: D. Eastbound, the body's day is compressed to about 19 hours against a free-running clock of about 25 hours, giving about 6 hours of jet lag. Westbound, the day stretches to about 29 hours, giving only about 4.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 213
Question 12
A normal night's sleep cycle has a periodicity of approximately:
- A30 minutes: too short for the documented cycle
- B360 minutes: the full night without internal cycles
- C180 minutes: twice the documented cycle
- D90 minutes (the standard sleep cycle) ✓
Answer: D. Sleep runs in cycles of about 90 minutes. The first REM stage comes near the end of the first cycle and lasts 10 to 20 minutes; REM periods get longer in later cycles.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 210
Question 13
The relationship between arousal and performance, per the Yerkes-Dodson curve, is:
- AA straight line: performance increases linearly with arousal indefinitely
- BA step function: performance jumps at one fixed arousal threshold
- CA U-shape: peak performance at very low and very high arousal
- DAn inverted U: low and high arousal both produce poor performance ✓
Answer: D. Low arousal brings slow scanning, missed information and poor performance; high arousal brings narrowed attention, errors and overload. Performance is best at a moderate level of arousal.Source: CAE Oxford 040, pp. 124-125
Question 14
Alcohol is eliminated from the blood at approximately:
- A1 unit per minute: alcohol clears very rapidly
- B1 unit per day: extremely slow elimination
- C10 units per hour, regardless of body weight or food consumed
- D1 unit per hour, equivalent to ~15 mg/100 ml/hr removal ✓
Answer: D. About 1 unit per hour, or about 15 mg of alcohol per 100 ml of blood per hour. Black coffee, steam baths or sleep do not speed it up.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 103
Question 15
The most common cause of in-flight crew incapacitation is:
- ACardiac events (heart attack and arrhythmia), especially over age 50
- BG-LOC from manoeuvring above 5g
- CHypoxia from cabin pressurisation failure
- DAcute gastroenteritis from food poisoning or contaminated water ✓
Answer: D. Acute gastroenteritis from food poisoning or contaminated water. Gastrointestinal disorders account for almost half of in-flight incapacitations, and a slow onset can leave the pilot unaware of how serious it is.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 101
Memory, error types, biases, automation
Question 16
Short-term (working) memory has a typical capacity of:
- AAbout 3 ± 1 unrelated items: very limited indeed
- BUnlimited items: capacity is not a meaningful constraint here
- CAbout 25 unrelated items: much larger than commonly believed
- DAbout 7 ± 2 unrelated items (the standard chunk capacity) ✓
Answer: D. About 7 ± 2 unrelated items. Beyond that, items are lost or transposed. Without rehearsal they are lost within 10 to 20 seconds, and short-term memory is very sensitive to interruption.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 154
Question 17
The four broad categories of errors in the information-processing model are:
- ASlips, lapses, mistakes, violations ✓
- BSkill, rule, knowledge (these are behaviour types, not error categories)
- CSelective, divided, mixed (these are attention types, not errors)
- DVisual, auditory, tactile, olfactory (these are sensory channels)
Answer: A. Slips: the intention is right but the action goes wrong, such as selecting the wrong switch. Lapses: a planned step is forgotten, often after an interruption. Mistakes: the action is carried out as intended but the plan itself is wrong. Violations: deliberate departures from rules or procedures.Source: CAE Oxford 040, pp. 160-161
Question 18
What behaviour is used to carry out a fire drill in flight?
- ASkill-based behaviour exclusively (no conscious decision required)
- BReflex behaviour (the brain is bypassed entirely)
- CKnowledge-based behaviour (no procedure has been learned)
- DRule-based behaviour (a learned procedure with conscious initiation) ✓
Answer: D. A fire drill is rule-based behaviour: the procedure has been learned, but it has to be started consciously. Standard procedures also let each crew member monitor the others' actions.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 169
Question 19
Confirmation bias refers to:
- AAlways seeking contrary evidence to a held hypothesis
- BCalling to mind common scenarios from the past and applying them inappropriately
- CA compulsive and repeated search for information to confirm a decision already reached ✓
- DAsking other crew members open-ended (non-leading) questions
Answer: C. The pilot ignores contrary evidence but seizes on any detail that supports the original idea. The defence is to look deliberately for information that would disprove the hypothesis.Source: CAE Oxford 040, pp. 171; also p. 136
Question 20
Mode error in automation refers to:
- AHardware failure of an autopilot servo motor or actuator drive component
- BThe pilot believing the autopilot is in one mode while it is in another ✓
- CAn INS drift that exceeds 5 nautical miles per hour at altitude
- DA software bug in the FMS database that corrupts performance data
Answer: B. With many selectable autoflight and engine modes, the pilot can believe the aircraft is programmed for one thing while it is doing another. The defence is to include the mode annunciations in the scan.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 285
CRM, TEM & safety culture
Threats, just culture, SHELL, group decisions
Question 21
The three components of Threat and Error Management (TEM) are:
- ASelection / training / monitoring (these are aircrew management functions)
- BLatent / active / catastrophic (these are types of failures, not TEM components)
- CThreats / Errors / Undesired Aircraft States ✓
- DSkill / rule / knowledge (these are Rasmussen's behaviour levels)
Answer: C. Threats, errors and undesired aircraft states. The crew's counter-measures aim to stop threats and errors from leading to undesired states that reduce safety margins.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 12
Question 22
A 'Just Culture' approach to errors is characterised by:
- AAll errors are punished equally to enforce compliance with SOPs
- BOnly the most senior person involved in an error is held accountable
- CAll errors are non-punitive, including deliberate violations of procedures, regardless of intent or outcome
- DUnintentional errors are not punished, but reckless or deliberate unsafe acts are subject to discipline ✓
Answer: D. Errors and unsafe acts are not punished if they were unintentional. Those who act recklessly or take deliberate and unjustifiable risks are subject to disciplinary action. It separates honest mistakes from culpable behaviour.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 12
Question 23
A pilot reading a checklist is using which SHELL interface?
- AL-E (Liveware-Environment): written procedures are part of the Environment element
- BH-L (Hardware-Liveware): the printed page is hardware
- CL-S (Liveware-Software): the pilot interacting with checklist content ✓
- DH-E (Hardware-Environment): covers the cockpit environment only
Answer: C. In the SHELL model, software means procedures, manuals, checklist layouts, symbology, computer programs, maps and charts. The pilot (liveware) reading a checklist is working at the liveware-software interface.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 273
Question 24
Group decisions, compared to individual decisions, tend to be:
- ALess risky: groups are conservative by nature
- BRisk-free if the captain is involved
- CIdentical in risk to individual decisions
- DMore risky: this tendency is known as risky shift ✓
Answer: D. Groups tend to reach riskier decisions than the average of their members, because responsibility is shared and because high-risk individuals tend to be more dominant and persuasive.Source: CAE Oxford 040, pp. 235-236
Question 25
The five 'dangerous attitudes' that hinder crew cooperation and good judgement are:
- AAnti-authority, impulsive, invulnerable, macho, resigned ✓
- BConfident, methodical, supportive, deferential, calm
- CAnxious, depressed, manic, schizoid, paranoid
- DSympathetic, parasympathetic, neutral, alert, relaxed
Answer: A. Anti-authority ("Don't tell me what to do!"), impulsive ("We must do something quick!"), invulnerable ("That can't happen to me"), macho ("I'll show them!") and resigned ("Too bad, there's nothing more I can do"). Each has an antidote: follow the rules; not so fast; it could happen to me; taking chances is foolish; I'm not helpless.Source: CAE Oxford 040, p. 265
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